medical laboratory technology for MLT, DMLT and technicians Mcqs 

  16.an advantage of using dry media is __________________

a.its ability to be erased and/or corrected. b.its durability throughout the years.

c.the high cost of materials used. d.the permanency.

 

.17. when performing the antioxidant lab, you will test the ability of substances to inhibit the______________ of nitro blue tetrazolium (nbt)?

16. A lab technician needs to clean medical instruments that have been exposed to bacteria. which electromagnetic wave would be most useful for this task?

A. infrared radio B. ultraviolet C. microwave

18. which of the following is not a safety precaution that should be practiced at home?

a.unplugging electrical appliances not in use b.storing flammable materials in a cool place

c.turning off the television at night d.not overloading outlets

19. Chlamydia trachomatis infection can be diagnosed by the

following except:

a. Gram stain

b. NAAT detects DNA

c. ELISA detect Ag

d. DFA test detect Ag

20. Bacterial classification in relation to 02 requirement as follows except:

a. Obligate aerobes b. Obligate anaerobes

c. Facultative anaerobes

d. Macroaerophilics

21. Regarding to mycobacteria characteristics circle the one correct

a. Anaerobic bacillus

b. Acid-fast bacillus

c. Gram-positive bacillus

d. Gram-negative bacillus

22. Healthy immunity accomplishes the following essential principles except:

a. Ability to fight off infection

b. Ability to recognize “self” cells

e. Ability to create memory cells

d. Ability to limitless response

23. In SSIS specimens, the following pathogens are likely to be isolated except:

a. Mycobacteria from LN aspirates

b. G-ve bacilli from skin tissues

c. Ps. aeruginosa from infected burns

24. Basics of QA Program, the following are mandatory the

exception is:

a. Competent lab, technicians

b. Proper specimen collection

e. Techniques with low precision. d. Continuous staffs training

25. To avoid infected aerosols, Safety sputum precautions as follows except:

a. Leak-proof containers used

b. Care when centrifuging sample

c. Procedures carried out in safety hood

d. BSL-1 recommended if TB

26. All the following analytical bacteriological procedures are

correct except:

a. Using pure culture isolates b. Using QC media & reagents

c. Using vague test conditions

d. Using positive & negative controls

27. Which one of the following results strongly suggestive of NGU?

a. Four or more PMN per field

b. Ten or more PMN per field

c. PMN without intracellular diplococci

d. PMN with intracellular diplococci

28. In TB meningitis CSF stain choose the one applicabler pocedure:

a. Gram stain

b. Tzanck stain

c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d. India-ink stain

29. B-lactamase producing pathogens include all the followingx ecept:

a. Candida albicans

b. N. gonorrhoeae

c. H. influenzae 

30. Mycobacterium culture as follows which one procedure is

unsuitable: a. LJ tubes incubated horizontally

b. L-J tubes incubated anaerobically

c. Growth inspected weekly for 6 wks. d. BACTEC system can be used

31. Complement functions include all the following except:

a. Cytolysis

b. Opsonization

c. Activate inflammation

d. T-cells activation

32. Pus or exudates culture one of the following pairs are not

matching:

a. Thioglycollate broth for anaerobes

b. Mannitol salt agar for G-ve bacilli c. Chocolate agar for H. influenzae

d. Anaerobic BA for C. perfringens

33. Regarding coagulase tube test which of the following is not applicable:

a. Human plasma used

b. Rabbit plasma used

c. Observe clotting 24 hrs.

d. S. aureus coagulase negative

34. Positive Blood culture one of the following observations is not correct:

a. Turbidity

b. Broth on blood layer

c. Transparent broth d. Gas bubbles

35. B and T cells are major types lymphocytes, circle the onwrong answer:

a. Both derived from BM stem cells.

b. B-cells involved in humoral immune response c. T-cells involved in antibody immune response.

d. Both are special types of leukocytes

36. Strep throat culture procedure choose the odd one out:

a. Blood agar plate b. Incubate at 35-37°C

c. Examine for B-haemolytic colonies d. Nitrocefin test

37. Reliable lab. test report is primarily dependent upon the

following except:

a. Nature of specimen

b. Correct specimen

c. Adequacy of information d. Short-cut procedure

38. N. gonorrhea on Thayer-Martin agar choose the one wrong observation:

a. Growth enriched with CO2

b. Colonies appear after 48 hrs c. Colonies appear glistening

d. Colonies are all equal in size Q27. One of the following does not represent hypersensitivity type(1):

a. An immediate reaction

b. An anaphylactic reaction

c. Mediated by IgA d. Penicillin allergy

39.  Vaccine-induced immunity, circle the one wrong immune

response:

a. An artificial active immunity b. Provides lifelong immunity

c. Forming new Abs

d. Forming memory cells

40.  Macrophages tissues cells functions choose the one incorrect answer:

a. Produce enzymes

b. Produce complement proteins

c. Produce regulatory factors IL-(I) d. Play role in allergic reactions

41. CSF macroscopic examination circle the one wrong comment:

a. Colorless b. Turbidity

c. Purulent

d. Visible colonies

42. Adaptive immunity characterized by the following responses except:

a. Not immediate

b. Reduction of T & B cells

c. Primary immune response

d. Secondary immune response

43.  In view to urinary strip screening test circle the one irrelevant result:

a. Pink color positive

b. If positive culture is indicated

c. If negative no culture is indicated.

d. Detect bacterial counts <105/ml 

44. CSF supernatant fluid examination one of following results incorrect:

a. WBCs in bacterial meningitis b. Glucose in bacterial meningitis

c. Protein in bacterial meningitis

d. Glucose in aseptic meningitis

45. killer T-cells immunological features include all the following except:

a. kill infected or dysfunctional cells

b. Each type recognizes the same Ag

c. Activation requires MHC-Ag receptor

d. Releases cytotoxins

46.  Haemophilus influenzae properties choose the irrelevant one:

a. Pleomorphic coccobacilli. b. Requires hemin & NAD factors

47. Phagocytosis involve all the following steps except:

Diapedesis

b. Chemotaxis

c. Attachment to MHC

d. Degranulation

48. Lysozyme functions, circle the one incorrect option:

a. Activates complement

b. Antibacterial agent

c. Chemical barrier

d. Released by B-cells

49. All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies except:

a. Are glycoprotein

b. Fix complement

c. Mediate allergic reaction

d. Occur on lymphocytes surface

50. Laboratory requisition form consist of the following

information except:

a. Patient age & gender

b. Inpatient or outpatient

c. Physician’s qualification d. Sample anatomic site

51. Which of the following Igs present in plasma at the highest concentration?

a. IgA

d. IgG

b. IgD

c. IgE

52. Quantitative Urine Culture >105 CFU/ml. circle the one correct answer:

a. Strongly suggestive of UTI

b. Contaminated if <2 species of bacteria

1. All these Precautions are included in which types of Hazards?

a. Hazards to Environments

b. Hazards to Patients c. Hazards to Staff

2. Radioactive material should be collected in an appropriate container. Hazard type?

a. Premises b.  Environmental c. Staff

3. Hazards to patients includes

a. Transmission of Disease

b. Vasovagal shock

c. A metabolic complication of some suppression

d. All of the above

4. Disinfect with household bleach on Porous surface require ……… dilution of Sodium hypochlorite.

a. 1:10       b. 1:20         c. 1: 40     d. 1:100

5. Disinfect with household bleach on Hard surface require ……… dilution of Sodium hypochlorite.

a. 1:10       b. 1:20         c. 1: 40     d. 1:100

6. Unit of Radiation is..

a. Becquerel (Bq)        b. Gray         c. Pascal

7. Symbol of “ U” in lab represent

a. Urine          b. uric acid       c. Uria

8. ALT and AST measured by ……. Procedure.

a. King Armstrong b. Reitman’s Frankel c. Somogyi

9.  Precaution to laboratory Staff in Hospital includes.

a. Personal protective equipment should be used.

b. Sample should not be touched with bare hands.

c. Mouth pipetting should not be allowed.

D. All the above

10. Light microscope has ……..basic Components.

a. Two          b. three              c. four    

11. Suppose you are using a microscope in Hematology. You are focusing on dry high power, Blueline objective. What will be your resolution?

a. 40      b. 400     c. 1000     d. 100

12 . Refractive index of cedarwood oil is ….

a.  1.5             b. 1.0                    c. 1.6      d.  2.0

13. You have a wavelength of 1000 micrometers, and a Numerical Aperture (NA) of 10 micrometers. What will be Resolution (R)?

a. 10              b. 100        c. 10000        d. 100000

14. Which of these colors complements each other.

a. blue-orange

b. blue-yellow

c. violet-orange

15. two technicians were told to test a particular blood sample. 1 the technician used a chromatograph, and the other technician used a hemocytometer.

what could have been done to ensure that the technicians used the same test?

a. limit the use of equipment

b.strict policy

  16.an advantage of using dry media is __________________

a.its ability to be erased and/or corrected. b.its durability throughout the years.

c.the high cost of materials used. d.the permanency.

 

.17. when performing the antioxidant lab, you will test the ability of substances to inhibit the______________ of nitro blue tetrazolium (nbt)?

16. A lab technician needs to clean medical instruments that have been exposed to bacteria. which electromagnetic wave would be most useful for this task?

A. infrared radio B. ultraviolet C. microwave

18. which of the following is not a safety precaution that should be practiced at home?

a.unplugging electrical appliances not in use b.storing flammable materials in a cool place

c.turning off the television at night d.not overloading outlets

19. Chlamydia trachomatis infection can be diagnosed by the

following except:

a. Gram stain

b. NAAT detects DNA

c. ELISA detect Ag

d. DFA test detect Ag

20. Bacterial classification in relation to 02 requirement as follows except:

a. Obligate aerobes b. Obligate anaerobes

c. Facultative anaerobes

d. Macroaerophilics

21. Regarding to mycobacteria characteristics circle the one correct

a. Anaerobic bacillus

b. Acid-fast bacillus

c. Gram-positive bacillus

d. Gram-negative bacillus

22. Healthy immunity accomplishes the following essential principles except:

a. Ability to fight off infection

b. Ability to recognize “self” cells

e. Ability to create memory cells

d. Ability to limitless response

23. In SSIS specimens, the following pathogens are likely to be isolated except:

a. Mycobacteria from LN aspirates

b. G-ve bacilli from skin tissues

c. Ps. aeruginosa from infected burns

24. Basics of QA Program, the following are mandatory the

exception is:

a. Competent lab, technicians

b. Proper specimen collection

e. Techniques with low precision. d. Continuous staffs training

25. To avoid infected aerosols, Safety sputum precautions as follows except:

a. Leak-proof containers used

b. Care when centrifuging sample

c. Procedures carried out in safety hood

d. BSL-1 recommended if TB

26. All the following analytical bacteriological procedures are

correct except:

a. Using pure culture isolates b. Using QC media & reagents

c. Using vague test conditions

d. Using positive & negative controls

27. Which one of the following results strongly suggestive of NGU?

a. Four or more PMN per field

b. Ten or more PMN per field

c. PMN without intracellular diplococci

d. PMN with intracellular diplococci

28. In TB meningitis CSF stain choose the one applicabler pocedure:

a. Gram stain

b. Tzanck stain

c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d. India-ink stain

29. B-lactamase producing pathogens include all the followingx ecept:

a. Candida albicans

b. N. gonorrhoeae

c. H. influenzae 

30. Mycobacterium culture as follows which one procedure is

unsuitable: a. LJ tubes incubated horizontally

b. L-J tubes incubated anaerobically

c. Growth inspected weekly for 6 wks. d. BACTEC system can be used

31. Complement functions include all the following except:

a. Cytolysis

b. Opsonization

c. Activate inflammation

d. T-cells activation

32. Pus or exudates culture one of the following pairs are not

matching:

a. Thioglycollate broth for anaerobes

b. Mannitol salt agar for G-ve bacilli c. Chocolate agar for H. influenzae

d. Anaerobic BA for C. perfringens

33. Regarding coagulase tube test which of the following is not applicable:

a. Human plasma used

b. Rabbit plasma used

c. Observe clotting 24 hrs.

d. S. aureus coagulase negative

34. Positive Blood culture one of the following observations is not correct:

a. Turbidity

b. Broth on blood layer

c. Transparent broth d. Gas bubbles

35. B and T cells are major types lymphocytes, circle the onwrong answer:

a. Both derived from BM stem cells.

b. B-cells involved in humoral immune response c. T-cells involved in antibody immune response.

d. Both are special types of leukocytes

36. Strep throat culture procedure choose the odd one out:

a. Blood agar plate b. Incubate at 35-37°C

c. Examine for B-haemolytic colonies d. Nitrocefin test

37. Reliable lab. test report is primarily dependent upon the

following except:

a. Nature of specimen

b. Correct specimen

c. Adequacy of information d. Short-cut procedure

38. N. gonorrhea on Thayer-Martin agar choose the one wrong observation:

a. Growth enriched with CO2

b. Colonies appear after 48 hrs c. Colonies appear glistening

d. Colonies are all equal in size Q27. One of the following does not represent hypersensitivity type(1):

a. An immediate reaction

b. An anaphylactic reaction

c. Mediated by IgA d. Penicillin allergy

39.  Vaccine-induced immunity, circle the one wrong immune

response:

a. An artificial active immunity b. Provides lifelong immunity

c. Forming new Abs

d. Forming memory cells

40.  Macrophages tissues cells functions choose the one incorrect answer:

a. Produce enzymes

b. Produce complement proteins

c. Produce regulatory factors IL-(I) d. Play role in allergic reactions

41. CSF macroscopic examination circle the one wrong comment:

a. Colorless b. Turbidity

c. Purulent

d. Visible colonies

42. Adaptive immunity characterized by the following responses except:

a. Not immediate

b. Reduction of T & B cells

c. Primary immune response

d. Secondary immune response

43.  In view to urinary strip screening test circle the one irrelevant result:

a. Pink color positive

b. If positive culture is indicated

c. If negative no culture is indicated.

d. Detect bacterial counts <105/ml 

44. CSF supernatant fluid examination one of following results incorrect:

a. WBCs in bacterial meningitis b. Glucose in bacterial meningitis

c. Protein in bacterial meningitis

d. Glucose in aseptic meningitis

45. killer T-cells immunological features include all the following except:

a. kill infected or dysfunctional cells

b. Each type recognizes the same Ag

c. Activation requires MHC-Ag receptor

d. Releases cytotoxins

46.  Haemophilus influenzae properties choose the irrelevant one:

a. Pleomorphic coccobacilli. b. Requires hemin & NAD factors

47. Phagocytosis involve all the following steps except:

Diapedesis

b. Chemotaxis

c. Attachment to MHC

d. Degranulation

48. Lysozyme functions, circle the one incorrect option:

a. Activates complement

b. Antibacterial agent

c. Chemical barrier

d. Released by B-cells

49. All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies except:

a. Are glycoprotein

b. Fix complement

c. Mediate allergic reaction

d. Occur on lymphocytes surface

50. Laboratory requisition form consist of the following

information except:

a. Patient age & gender

b. Inpatient or outpatient

c. Physician’s qualification d. Sample anatomic site

51. Which of the following Igs present in plasma at the highest concentration?

a. IgA

d. IgG

b. IgD

c. IgE

52. Quantitative Urine Culture >105 CFU/ml. circle the one correct answer:

a. Strongly suggestive of UTI

b. Contaminated if <2 species of bacteria

1. All these Precautions are included in which types of Hazards?

a. Hazards to Environments

b. Hazards to Patients c. Hazards to Staff

2. Radioactive material should be collected in an appropriate container. Hazard type?

a. Premises b.  Environmental c. Staff

3. Hazards to patients includes

a. Transmission of Disease

b. Vasovagal shock

c. A metabolic complication of some suppression

d. All of the above

4. Disinfect with household bleach on Porous surface require ……… dilution of Sodium hypochlorite.

a. 1:10       b. 1:20         c. 1: 40     d. 1:100

5. Disinfect with household bleach on Hard surface require ……… dilution of Sodium hypochlorite.

a. 1:10       b. 1:20         c. 1: 40     d. 1:100

6. Unit of Radiation is..

a. Becquerel (Bq)        b. Gray         c. Pascal

7. Symbol of “ U” in lab represent

a. Urine          b. uric acid       c. Uria

8. ALT and AST measured by ……. Procedure.

a. King Armstrong b. Reitman’s Frankel c. Somogyi

9.  Precaution to laboratory Staff in Hospital includes.

a. Personal protective equipment should be used.

b. Sample should not be touched with bare hands.

c. Mouth pipetting should not be allowed.

D. All the above

10. Light microscope has ……..basic Components.

a. Two          b. three              c. four    

11. Suppose you are using a microscope in Hematology. You are focusing on dry high power, Blueline objective. What will be your resolution?

a. 40      b. 400     c. 1000     d. 100

12 . Refractive index of cedarwood oil is ….

a.  1.5             b. 1.0                    c. 1.6      d.  2.0

13. You have a wavelength of 1000 micrometers, and a Numerical Aperture (NA) of 10 micrometers. What will be Resolution (R)?

a. 10              b. 100        c. 10000        d. 100000

14. Which of these colors complements each other.

a. blue-orange

b. blue-yellow

c. violet-orange

15. two technicians were told to test a particular blood sample. 1 the technician used a chromatograph, and the other technician used a hemocytometer.

what could have been done to ensure that the technicians used the same test?

a. limit the use of equipment

b.strict policy

  16.an advantage of using dry media is __________________

a.its ability to be erased and/or corrected. b.its durability throughout the years.

c.the high cost of materials used. d.the permanency.

 

.17. when performing the antioxidant lab, you will test the ability of substances to inhibit the______________ of nitro blue tetrazolium (nbt)?

16. A lab technician needs to clean medical instruments that have been exposed to bacteria. which electromagnetic wave would be most useful for this task?

A. infrared radio B. ultraviolet C. microwave

18. which of the following is not a safety precaution that should be practiced at home?

a.unplugging electrical appliances not in use b.storing flammable materials in a cool place

c.turning off the television at night d.not overloading outlets

19. Chlamydia trachomatis infection can be diagnosed by the

following except:

a. Gram stain

b. NAAT detects DNA

c. ELISA detect Ag

d. DFA test detect Ag

20. Bacterial classification in relation to 02 requirement as follows except:

a. Obligate aerobes b. Obligate anaerobes

c. Facultative anaerobes

d. Macroaerophilics

21. Regarding to mycobacteria characteristics circle the one correct

a. Anaerobic bacillus

b. Acid-fast bacillus

c. Gram-positive bacillus

d. Gram-negative bacillus

22. Healthy immunity accomplishes the following essential principles except:

a. Ability to fight off infection

b. Ability to recognize “self” cells

e. Ability to create memory cells

d. Ability to limitless response

23. In SSIS specimens, the following pathogens are likely to be isolated except:

a. Mycobacteria from LN aspirates

b. G-ve bacilli from skin tissues

c. Ps. aeruginosa from infected burns

24. Basics of QA Program, the following are mandatory the

exception is:

a. Competent lab, technicians

b. Proper specimen collection

e. Techniques with low precision. d. Continuous staffs training

25. To avoid infected aerosols, Safety sputum precautions as follows except:

a. Leak-proof containers used

b. Care when centrifuging sample

c. Procedures carried out in safety hood

d. BSL-1 recommended if TB

26. All the following analytical bacteriological procedures are

correct except:

a. Using pure culture isolates b. Using QC media & reagents

c. Using vague test conditions

d. Using positive & negative controls

27. Which one of the following results strongly suggestive of NGU?

a. Four or more PMN per field

b. Ten or more PMN per field

c. PMN without intracellular diplococci

d. PMN with intracellular diplococci

28. In TB meningitis CSF stain choose the one applicabler pocedure:

a. Gram stain

b. Tzanck stain

c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d. India-ink stain

29. B-lactamase producing pathogens include all the followingx ecept:

a. Candida albicans

b. N. gonorrhoeae

c. H. influenzae 

30. Mycobacterium culture as follows which one procedure is

unsuitable: a. LJ tubes incubated horizontally

b. L-J tubes incubated anaerobically

c. Growth inspected weekly for 6 wks. d. BACTEC system can be used

31. Complement functions include all the following except:

a. Cytolysis

b. Opsonization

c. Activate inflammation

d. T-cells activation

32. Pus or exudates culture one of the following pairs are not

matching:

a. Thioglycollate broth for anaerobes

b. Mannitol salt agar for G-ve bacilli c. Chocolate agar for H. influenzae

d. Anaerobic BA for C. perfringens

33. Regarding coagulase tube test which of the following is not applicable:

a. Human plasma used

b. Rabbit plasma used

c. Observe clotting 24 hrs.

d. S. aureus coagulase negative

34. Positive Blood culture one of the following observations is not correct:

a. Turbidity

b. Broth on blood layer

c. Transparent broth d. Gas bubbles

35. B and T cells are major types lymphocytes, circle the onwrong answer:

a. Both derived from BM stem cells.

b. B-cells involved in humoral immune response c. T-cells involved in antibody immune response.

d. Both are special types of leukocytes

36. Strep throat culture procedure choose the odd one out:

a. Blood agar plate b. Incubate at 35-37°C

c. Examine for B-haemolytic colonies d. Nitrocefin test

37. Reliable lab. test report is primarily dependent upon the

following except:

a. Nature of specimen

b. Correct specimen

c. Adequacy of information d. Short-cut procedure

38. N. gonorrhea on Thayer-Martin agar choose the one wrong observation:

a. Growth enriched with CO2

b. Colonies appear after 48 hrs c. Colonies appear glistening

d. Colonies are all equal in size Q27. One of the following does not represent hypersensitivity type(1):

a. An immediate reaction

b. An anaphylactic reaction

c. Mediated by IgA d. Penicillin allergy

39.  Vaccine-induced immunity, circle the one wrong immune

response:

a. An artificial active immunity b. Provides lifelong immunity

c. Forming new Abs

d. Forming memory cells

40.  Macrophages tissues cells functions choose the one incorrect answer:

a. Produce enzymes

b. Produce complement proteins

c. Produce regulatory factors IL-(I) d. Play role in allergic reactions

41. CSF macroscopic examination circle the one wrong comment:

a. Colorless b. Turbidity

c. Purulent

d. Visible colonies

42. Adaptive immunity characterized by the following responses except:

a. Not immediate

b. Reduction of T & B cells

c. Primary immune response

d. Secondary immune response

43.  In view to urinary strip screening test circle the one irrelevant result:

a. Pink color positive

b. If positive culture is indicated

c. If negative no culture is indicated.

d. Detect bacterial counts <105/ml 

44. CSF supernatant fluid examination one of following results incorrect:

a. WBCs in bacterial meningitis b. Glucose in bacterial meningitis

c. Protein in bacterial meningitis

d. Glucose in aseptic meningitis

45. killer T-cells immunological features include all the following except:

a. kill infected or dysfunctional cells

b. Each type recognizes the same Ag

c. Activation requires MHC-Ag receptor

d. Releases cytotoxins

46.  Haemophilus influenzae properties choose the irrelevant one:

a. Pleomorphic coccobacilli. b. Requires hemin & NAD factors

47. Phagocytosis involve all the following steps except:

Diapedesis

b. Chemotaxis

c. Attachment to MHC

d. Degranulation

48. Lysozyme functions, circle the one incorrect option:

a. Activates complement

b. Antibacterial agent

c. Chemical barrier

d. Released by B-cells

49. All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies except:

a. Are glycoprotein

b. Fix complement

c. Mediate allergic reaction

d. Occur on lymphocytes surface

50. Laboratory requisition form consist of the following

information except:

a. Patient age & gender

b. Inpatient or outpatient

c. Physician’s qualification d. Sample anatomic site

51. Which of the following Igs present in plasma at the highest concentration?

a. IgA

d. IgG

b. IgD

c. IgE

52. Quantitative Urine Culture >105 CFU/ml. circle the one correct answer:

a. Strongly suggestive of UTI

b. Contaminated if <2 species of bacteria

 

1. All these Precautions are included in which types of Hazards?

a. Hazards to Environments

b. Hazards to Patients c. Hazards to Staff

2. Radioactive material should be collected in an appropriate container. Hazard type?

a. Premises b.  Environmental c. Staff

3. Hazards to patients includes

a. Transmission of Disease

b. Vasovagal shock

c. A metabolic complication of some suppression

d. All of the above

4. Disinfect with household bleach on Porous surface require ……… dilution of Sodium hypochlorite.

a. 1:10       b. 1:20         c. 1: 40     d. 1:100

5. Disinfect with household bleach on Hard surface require ……… dilution of Sodium hypochlorite.

a. 1:10       b. 1:20         c. 1: 40     d. 1:100

6. Unit of Radiation is..

a. Becquerel (Bq)        b. Gray         c. Pascal

7. Symbol of “ U” in lab represent

a. Urine          b. uric acid       c. Uria

8. ALT and AST measured by ……. Procedure.

a. King Armstrong b. Reitman’s Frankel c. Somogyi

9.  Precaution to laboratory Staff in Hospital includes.

a. Personal protective equipment should be used.

b. Sample should not be touched with bare hands.

c. Mouth pipetting should not be allowed.

D. All the above

10. Light microscope has ……..basic Components.

a. Two          b. three              c. four    

11. Suppose you are using a microscope in Hematology. You are focusing on dry high power, Blueline objective. What will be your resolution?

a. 40      b. 400     c. 1000     d. 100

12 . Refractive index of cedarwood oil is ….

a.  1.5             b. 1.0                    c. 1.6      d.  2.0

13. You have a wavelength of 1000 micrometers, and a Numerical Aperture (NA) of 10 micrometers. What will be Resolution (R)?

a. 10              b. 100        c. 10000        d. 100000

14. Which of these colors complements each other.

a. blue-orange

b. blue-yellow

c. violet-orange

15. two technicians were told to test a particular blood sample. 1 the technician used a chromatograph, and the other technician used a hemocytometer.

what could have been done to ensure that the technicians used the same test?

a. limit the use of equipment

b.strict policy

  16.an advantage of using dry media is __________________

a.its ability to be erased and/or corrected. b.its durability throughout the years.

c.the high cost of materials used. d.the permanency.

 

.17. when performing the antioxidant lab, you will test the ability of substances to inhibit the______________ of nitro blue tetrazolium (nbt)?

16. A lab technician needs to clean medical instruments that have been exposed to bacteria. which electromagnetic wave would be most useful for this task?

A. infrared radio B. ultraviolet C. microwave

18. which of the following is not a safety precaution that should be practiced at home?

a.unplugging electrical appliances not in use b.storing flammable materials in a cool place

c.turning off the television at night d.not overloading outlets

19. Chlamydia trachomatis infection can be diagnosed by the

following except:

a. Gram stain

b. NAAT detects DNA

c. ELISA detect Ag

d. DFA test detect Ag

20. Bacterial classification in relation to 02 requirement as follows except:

a. Obligate aerobes b. Obligate anaerobes

c. Facultative anaerobes

d. Macroaerophilics

21. Regarding to mycobacteria characteristics circle the one correct

a. Anaerobic bacillus

b. Acid-fast bacillus

c. Gram-positive bacillus

d. Gram-negative bacillus

22. Healthy immunity accomplishes the following essential principles except:

a. Ability to fight off infection

b. Ability to recognize “self” cells

e. Ability to create memory cells

d. Ability to limitless response

23. In SSIS specimens, the following pathogens are likely to be isolated except:

a. Mycobacteria from LN aspirates

b. G-ve bacilli from skin tissues

c. Ps. aeruginosa from infected burns

24. Basics of QA Program, the following are mandatory the

exception is:

a. Competent lab, technicians

b. Proper specimen collection

e. Techniques with low precision. d. Continuous staffs training

25. To avoid infected aerosols, Safety sputum precautions as follows except:

a. Leak-proof containers used

b. Care when centrifuging sample

c. Procedures carried out in safety hood

d. BSL-1 recommended if TB

26. All the following analytical bacteriological procedures are

correct except:

a. Using pure culture isolates b. Using QC media & reagents

c. Using vague test conditions

d. Using positive & negative controls

27. Which one of the following results strongly suggestive of NGU?

a. Four or more PMN per field

b. Ten or more PMN per field

c. PMN without intracellular diplococci

d. PMN with intracellular diplococci

28. In TB meningitis CSF stain choose the one applicabler pocedure:

a. Gram stain

b. Tzanck stain

c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

d. India-ink stain

29. B-lactamase producing pathogens include all the followingx ecept:

a. Candida albicans

b. N. gonorrhoeae

c. H. influenzae 

30. Mycobacterium culture as follows which one procedure is

unsuitable: a. LJ tubes incubated horizontally

b. L-J tubes incubated anaerobically

c. Growth inspected weekly for 6 wks. d. BACTEC system can be used

31. Complement functions include all the following except:

a. Cytolysis

b. Opsonization

c. Activate inflammation

d. T-cells activation

32. Pus or exudates culture one of the following pairs are not

matching:

a. Thioglycollate broth for anaerobes

b. Mannitol salt agar for G-ve bacilli c. Chocolate agar for H. influenzae

d. Anaerobic BA for C. perfringens

33. Regarding coagulase tube test which of the following is not applicable:

a. Human plasma used

b. Rabbit plasma used

c. Observe clotting 24 hrs.

d. S. aureus coagulase negative

34. Positive Blood culture one of the following observations is not correct:

a. Turbidity

b. Broth on blood layer

c. Transparent broth d. Gas bubbles

35. B and T cells are major types lymphocytes, circle the onwrong answer:

a. Both derived from BM stem cells.

b. B-cells involved in humoral immune response c. T-cells involved in antibody immune response.

d. Both are special types of leukocytes

36. Strep throat culture procedure choose the odd one out:

a. Blood agar plate b. Incubate at 35-37°C

c. Examine for B-haemolytic colonies d. Nitrocefin test

37. Reliable lab. test report is primarily dependent upon the

following except:

a. Nature of specimen

b. Correct specimen

c. Adequacy of information d. Short-cut procedure

38. N. gonorrhea on Thayer-Martin agar choose the one wrong observation:

a. Growth enriched with CO2

b. Colonies appear after 48 hrs c. Colonies appear glistening

d. Colonies are all equal in size Q27. One of the following does not represent hypersensitivity type(1):

a. An immediate reaction

b. An anaphylactic reaction

c. Mediated by IgA d. Penicillin allergy

39.  Vaccine-induced immunity, circle the one wrong immune

response:

a. An artificial active immunity b. Provides lifelong immunity

c. Forming new Abs

d. Forming memory cells

40.  Macrophages tissues cells functions choose the one incorrect answer:

a. Produce enzymes

b. Produce complement proteins

c. Produce regulatory factors IL-(I) d. Play role in allergic reactions

41. CSF macroscopic examination circle the one wrong comment:

a. Colorless b. Turbidity

c. Purulent

d. Visible colonies

42. Adaptive immunity characterized by the following responses except:

a. Not immediate

b. Reduction of T & B cells

c. Primary immune response

d. Secondary immune response

43.  In view to urinary strip screening test circle the one irrelevant result:

a. Pink color positive

b. If positive culture is indicated

c. If negative no culture is indicated.

d. Detect bacterial counts <105/ml 

44. CSF supernatant fluid examination one of following results incorrect:

a. WBCs in bacterial meningitis b. Glucose in bacterial meningitis

c. Protein in bacterial meningitis

d. Glucose in aseptic meningitis

45. killer T-cells immunological features include all the following except:

a. kill infected or dysfunctional cells

b. Each type recognizes the same Ag

c. Activation requires MHC-Ag receptor

d. Releases cytotoxins

46.  Haemophilus influenzae properties choose the irrelevant one:

a. Pleomorphic coccobacilli. b. Requires hemin & NAD factors

47. Phagocytosis involve all the following steps except:

Diapedesis

b. Chemotaxis

c. Attachment to MHC

d. Degranulation

48. Lysozyme functions, circle the one incorrect option:

a. Activates complement

b. Antibacterial agent

c. Chemical barrier

d. Released by B-cells

49. All of the following are true with respect to IgM antibodies except:

a. Are glycoprotein

b. Fix complement

c. Mediate allergic reaction

d. Occur on lymphocytes surface

50. Laboratory requisition form consist of the following

information except:

a. Patient age & gender

b. Inpatient or outpatient

c. Physician’s qualification d. Sample anatomic site

51. Which of the following Igs present in plasma at the highest concentration?

a. IgA

d. IgG

b. IgD

c. IgE

52. Quantitative Urine Culture >105 CFU/ml. circle the one correct answer:

a. Strongly suggestive of UTI

b. Contaminated if <2 species of bacteria

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